women

I just made a video about how unclear the Quran is regarding Surah 4:34, the infamous “wife-beating” verse. Some modern translators try to water it down—saying “separate from them”, which is very different. But if the Quran is so clear, why is there so much disagreement about a moral command? And if it’s clear, why did earlier translators—including classical Muslim scholars—have no issue saying “beat”? And if it’s not clear, then it’s contradicting itself, since Surah 11:1 literally says the Quran is a “book whose verses are perfected and explained in detail.” So either the Quran is unclear or it’s bad. Pick your poison. Sunan Ibn Majah 1851 – “Don’t Leave a Mark” Now, I’ll … Read more